Op-amp's input bias current












1














enter image description here



Could you please tell me how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input? The result is 100k//1M but according to me the voltage between the 100k and the 1M is not the same. So the resistors are not in parallel. This result is true in small signal analysis. But the input bias current is present at DC. Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem ?










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  • 1




    The result is 100k//1M No it is not unless there is a voltage source to ground connected at the left of the 100k resistor. As drawn there is "nothing" so the 100 k resistor does nothing. How does an opamp's output behave? Does it have a low or high output impedance? You should first think about how this circuit normally operates, what will be connected to it, how is it used?
    – Bimpelrekkie
    2 hours ago








  • 2




    @Bimpelrekkie: In such circuits, it is generally understood that unknown inputs are voltage sources, unless otherwise specified.
    – Dave Tweed
    2 hours ago






  • 3




    @DaveTweed Sure, but I think that is a very bad habit! Nothing is specified at the input here. How much trouble is it to put a "Vin" there and then it would be clear. Very often I see assumptions being made and assumptions are the source of many errors and misunderstandings.
    – Bimpelrekkie
    2 hours ago








  • 1




    @Bimpelrekkie - I'm sure you are too polite to say it, but there is an old saying which goes, "When you 'assume', you make an 'ass' out of 'u' and 'me',"
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago
















1














enter image description here



Could you please tell me how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input? The result is 100k//1M but according to me the voltage between the 100k and the 1M is not the same. So the resistors are not in parallel. This result is true in small signal analysis. But the input bias current is present at DC. Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem ?










share|improve this question









New contributor




Leo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 1




    The result is 100k//1M No it is not unless there is a voltage source to ground connected at the left of the 100k resistor. As drawn there is "nothing" so the 100 k resistor does nothing. How does an opamp's output behave? Does it have a low or high output impedance? You should first think about how this circuit normally operates, what will be connected to it, how is it used?
    – Bimpelrekkie
    2 hours ago








  • 2




    @Bimpelrekkie: In such circuits, it is generally understood that unknown inputs are voltage sources, unless otherwise specified.
    – Dave Tweed
    2 hours ago






  • 3




    @DaveTweed Sure, but I think that is a very bad habit! Nothing is specified at the input here. How much trouble is it to put a "Vin" there and then it would be clear. Very often I see assumptions being made and assumptions are the source of many errors and misunderstandings.
    – Bimpelrekkie
    2 hours ago








  • 1




    @Bimpelrekkie - I'm sure you are too polite to say it, but there is an old saying which goes, "When you 'assume', you make an 'ass' out of 'u' and 'me',"
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago














1












1








1


1





enter image description here



Could you please tell me how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input? The result is 100k//1M but according to me the voltage between the 100k and the 1M is not the same. So the resistors are not in parallel. This result is true in small signal analysis. But the input bias current is present at DC. Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem ?










share|improve this question









New contributor




Leo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











enter image description here



Could you please tell me how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input? The result is 100k//1M but according to me the voltage between the 100k and the 1M is not the same. So the resistors are not in parallel. This result is true in small signal analysis. But the input bias current is present at DC. Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem ?







op-amp






share|improve this question









New contributor




Leo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









New contributor




Leo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 1 hour ago









Transistor

80.3k778173




80.3k778173






New contributor




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Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 2 hours ago









Leo

61




61




New contributor




Leo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Leo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Leo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








  • 1




    The result is 100k//1M No it is not unless there is a voltage source to ground connected at the left of the 100k resistor. As drawn there is "nothing" so the 100 k resistor does nothing. How does an opamp's output behave? Does it have a low or high output impedance? You should first think about how this circuit normally operates, what will be connected to it, how is it used?
    – Bimpelrekkie
    2 hours ago








  • 2




    @Bimpelrekkie: In such circuits, it is generally understood that unknown inputs are voltage sources, unless otherwise specified.
    – Dave Tweed
    2 hours ago






  • 3




    @DaveTweed Sure, but I think that is a very bad habit! Nothing is specified at the input here. How much trouble is it to put a "Vin" there and then it would be clear. Very often I see assumptions being made and assumptions are the source of many errors and misunderstandings.
    – Bimpelrekkie
    2 hours ago








  • 1




    @Bimpelrekkie - I'm sure you are too polite to say it, but there is an old saying which goes, "When you 'assume', you make an 'ass' out of 'u' and 'me',"
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago














  • 1




    The result is 100k//1M No it is not unless there is a voltage source to ground connected at the left of the 100k resistor. As drawn there is "nothing" so the 100 k resistor does nothing. How does an opamp's output behave? Does it have a low or high output impedance? You should first think about how this circuit normally operates, what will be connected to it, how is it used?
    – Bimpelrekkie
    2 hours ago








  • 2




    @Bimpelrekkie: In such circuits, it is generally understood that unknown inputs are voltage sources, unless otherwise specified.
    – Dave Tweed
    2 hours ago






  • 3




    @DaveTweed Sure, but I think that is a very bad habit! Nothing is specified at the input here. How much trouble is it to put a "Vin" there and then it would be clear. Very often I see assumptions being made and assumptions are the source of many errors and misunderstandings.
    – Bimpelrekkie
    2 hours ago








  • 1




    @Bimpelrekkie - I'm sure you are too polite to say it, but there is an old saying which goes, "When you 'assume', you make an 'ass' out of 'u' and 'me',"
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago








1




1




The result is 100k//1M No it is not unless there is a voltage source to ground connected at the left of the 100k resistor. As drawn there is "nothing" so the 100 k resistor does nothing. How does an opamp's output behave? Does it have a low or high output impedance? You should first think about how this circuit normally operates, what will be connected to it, how is it used?
– Bimpelrekkie
2 hours ago






The result is 100k//1M No it is not unless there is a voltage source to ground connected at the left of the 100k resistor. As drawn there is "nothing" so the 100 k resistor does nothing. How does an opamp's output behave? Does it have a low or high output impedance? You should first think about how this circuit normally operates, what will be connected to it, how is it used?
– Bimpelrekkie
2 hours ago






2




2




@Bimpelrekkie: In such circuits, it is generally understood that unknown inputs are voltage sources, unless otherwise specified.
– Dave Tweed
2 hours ago




@Bimpelrekkie: In such circuits, it is generally understood that unknown inputs are voltage sources, unless otherwise specified.
– Dave Tweed
2 hours ago




3




3




@DaveTweed Sure, but I think that is a very bad habit! Nothing is specified at the input here. How much trouble is it to put a "Vin" there and then it would be clear. Very often I see assumptions being made and assumptions are the source of many errors and misunderstandings.
– Bimpelrekkie
2 hours ago






@DaveTweed Sure, but I think that is a very bad habit! Nothing is specified at the input here. How much trouble is it to put a "Vin" there and then it would be clear. Very often I see assumptions being made and assumptions are the source of many errors and misunderstandings.
– Bimpelrekkie
2 hours ago






1




1




@Bimpelrekkie - I'm sure you are too polite to say it, but there is an old saying which goes, "When you 'assume', you make an 'ass' out of 'u' and 'me',"
– WhatRoughBeast
1 hour ago




@Bimpelrekkie - I'm sure you are too polite to say it, but there is an old saying which goes, "When you 'assume', you make an 'ass' out of 'u' and 'me',"
– WhatRoughBeast
1 hour ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3














It doesn't matter whether the two voltages are the same. Regardless of what they are, the two voltage sources and their resistors can be replaced with a single source and a single resistor (this is called the "Thévenin equivalent"). The Thévenin resistance is always simply the parallel combination of the original two resistors.






share|improve this answer





















  • Although technically this does not answer the question, since bias currents are not necessarily perfectly proportional to input impedance. For instance, an op amp operating linearly with the inverting input within microvolts of ground can have considerable bias currents, at least for early models. The question is actually based on a mistaken assumption and is not answerable as stated.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: The question is, and I quote, "how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input?" and "Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem?". This is precisely an answer to that. And the underlying problem is not about the magnitude of the bias current, but rather about how to mitigate its effect by balancing the source impedances. Again the assumptions are (yeah, I know) that the input structures are matched and that when the opamp is operating linearly, the input voltages are equal, and therefore, so are their bias currents.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • ... The key concept here is that even if the bias current varies with voltage (or anything else), the matched source impedances make sure that this does not contribute to any offset at the output.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: Finally, there's nothing special about operating "within microvolts of ground", especially for "early models", which pretty much universally required bipolar power supplies.
    – Dave Tweed
    54 mins ago










  • While I understand your point, the configuration implicitly assumes that bias current does not vary much in operation. It is intended, after all, to compensate for (essentially) DC offset voltages. While these vary (especially with temperature), any signal-dependent component is not referred to as offset voltage at all, but rather as a consequence of input resistance.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    51 mins ago













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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

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active

oldest

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3














It doesn't matter whether the two voltages are the same. Regardless of what they are, the two voltage sources and their resistors can be replaced with a single source and a single resistor (this is called the "Thévenin equivalent"). The Thévenin resistance is always simply the parallel combination of the original two resistors.






share|improve this answer





















  • Although technically this does not answer the question, since bias currents are not necessarily perfectly proportional to input impedance. For instance, an op amp operating linearly with the inverting input within microvolts of ground can have considerable bias currents, at least for early models. The question is actually based on a mistaken assumption and is not answerable as stated.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: The question is, and I quote, "how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input?" and "Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem?". This is precisely an answer to that. And the underlying problem is not about the magnitude of the bias current, but rather about how to mitigate its effect by balancing the source impedances. Again the assumptions are (yeah, I know) that the input structures are matched and that when the opamp is operating linearly, the input voltages are equal, and therefore, so are their bias currents.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • ... The key concept here is that even if the bias current varies with voltage (or anything else), the matched source impedances make sure that this does not contribute to any offset at the output.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: Finally, there's nothing special about operating "within microvolts of ground", especially for "early models", which pretty much universally required bipolar power supplies.
    – Dave Tweed
    54 mins ago










  • While I understand your point, the configuration implicitly assumes that bias current does not vary much in operation. It is intended, after all, to compensate for (essentially) DC offset voltages. While these vary (especially with temperature), any signal-dependent component is not referred to as offset voltage at all, but rather as a consequence of input resistance.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    51 mins ago


















3














It doesn't matter whether the two voltages are the same. Regardless of what they are, the two voltage sources and their resistors can be replaced with a single source and a single resistor (this is called the "Thévenin equivalent"). The Thévenin resistance is always simply the parallel combination of the original two resistors.






share|improve this answer





















  • Although technically this does not answer the question, since bias currents are not necessarily perfectly proportional to input impedance. For instance, an op amp operating linearly with the inverting input within microvolts of ground can have considerable bias currents, at least for early models. The question is actually based on a mistaken assumption and is not answerable as stated.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: The question is, and I quote, "how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input?" and "Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem?". This is precisely an answer to that. And the underlying problem is not about the magnitude of the bias current, but rather about how to mitigate its effect by balancing the source impedances. Again the assumptions are (yeah, I know) that the input structures are matched and that when the opamp is operating linearly, the input voltages are equal, and therefore, so are their bias currents.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • ... The key concept here is that even if the bias current varies with voltage (or anything else), the matched source impedances make sure that this does not contribute to any offset at the output.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: Finally, there's nothing special about operating "within microvolts of ground", especially for "early models", which pretty much universally required bipolar power supplies.
    – Dave Tweed
    54 mins ago










  • While I understand your point, the configuration implicitly assumes that bias current does not vary much in operation. It is intended, after all, to compensate for (essentially) DC offset voltages. While these vary (especially with temperature), any signal-dependent component is not referred to as offset voltage at all, but rather as a consequence of input resistance.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    51 mins ago
















3












3








3






It doesn't matter whether the two voltages are the same. Regardless of what they are, the two voltage sources and their resistors can be replaced with a single source and a single resistor (this is called the "Thévenin equivalent"). The Thévenin resistance is always simply the parallel combination of the original two resistors.






share|improve this answer












It doesn't matter whether the two voltages are the same. Regardless of what they are, the two voltage sources and their resistors can be replaced with a single source and a single resistor (this is called the "Thévenin equivalent"). The Thévenin resistance is always simply the parallel combination of the original two resistors.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 2 hours ago









Dave Tweed

117k9145256




117k9145256












  • Although technically this does not answer the question, since bias currents are not necessarily perfectly proportional to input impedance. For instance, an op amp operating linearly with the inverting input within microvolts of ground can have considerable bias currents, at least for early models. The question is actually based on a mistaken assumption and is not answerable as stated.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: The question is, and I quote, "how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input?" and "Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem?". This is precisely an answer to that. And the underlying problem is not about the magnitude of the bias current, but rather about how to mitigate its effect by balancing the source impedances. Again the assumptions are (yeah, I know) that the input structures are matched and that when the opamp is operating linearly, the input voltages are equal, and therefore, so are their bias currents.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • ... The key concept here is that even if the bias current varies with voltage (or anything else), the matched source impedances make sure that this does not contribute to any offset at the output.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: Finally, there's nothing special about operating "within microvolts of ground", especially for "early models", which pretty much universally required bipolar power supplies.
    – Dave Tweed
    54 mins ago










  • While I understand your point, the configuration implicitly assumes that bias current does not vary much in operation. It is intended, after all, to compensate for (essentially) DC offset voltages. While these vary (especially with temperature), any signal-dependent component is not referred to as offset voltage at all, but rather as a consequence of input resistance.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    51 mins ago




















  • Although technically this does not answer the question, since bias currents are not necessarily perfectly proportional to input impedance. For instance, an op amp operating linearly with the inverting input within microvolts of ground can have considerable bias currents, at least for early models. The question is actually based on a mistaken assumption and is not answerable as stated.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: The question is, and I quote, "how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input?" and "Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem?". This is precisely an answer to that. And the underlying problem is not about the magnitude of the bias current, but rather about how to mitigate its effect by balancing the source impedances. Again the assumptions are (yeah, I know) that the input structures are matched and that when the opamp is operating linearly, the input voltages are equal, and therefore, so are their bias currents.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • ... The key concept here is that even if the bias current varies with voltage (or anything else), the matched source impedances make sure that this does not contribute to any offset at the output.
    – Dave Tweed
    1 hour ago












  • @WhatRoughBeast: Finally, there's nothing special about operating "within microvolts of ground", especially for "early models", which pretty much universally required bipolar power supplies.
    – Dave Tweed
    54 mins ago










  • While I understand your point, the configuration implicitly assumes that bias current does not vary much in operation. It is intended, after all, to compensate for (essentially) DC offset voltages. While these vary (especially with temperature), any signal-dependent component is not referred to as offset voltage at all, but rather as a consequence of input resistance.
    – WhatRoughBeast
    51 mins ago


















Although technically this does not answer the question, since bias currents are not necessarily perfectly proportional to input impedance. For instance, an op amp operating linearly with the inverting input within microvolts of ground can have considerable bias currents, at least for early models. The question is actually based on a mistaken assumption and is not answerable as stated.
– WhatRoughBeast
1 hour ago






Although technically this does not answer the question, since bias currents are not necessarily perfectly proportional to input impedance. For instance, an op amp operating linearly with the inverting input within microvolts of ground can have considerable bias currents, at least for early models. The question is actually based on a mistaken assumption and is not answerable as stated.
– WhatRoughBeast
1 hour ago














@WhatRoughBeast: The question is, and I quote, "how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input?" and "Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem?". This is precisely an answer to that. And the underlying problem is not about the magnitude of the bias current, but rather about how to mitigate its effect by balancing the source impedances. Again the assumptions are (yeah, I know) that the input structures are matched and that when the opamp is operating linearly, the input voltages are equal, and therefore, so are their bias currents.
– Dave Tweed
1 hour ago






@WhatRoughBeast: The question is, and I quote, "how do you compute the impedance seen by the inverting input?" and "Is there a way to resolve this problem with the thevenin's theorem?". This is precisely an answer to that. And the underlying problem is not about the magnitude of the bias current, but rather about how to mitigate its effect by balancing the source impedances. Again the assumptions are (yeah, I know) that the input structures are matched and that when the opamp is operating linearly, the input voltages are equal, and therefore, so are their bias currents.
– Dave Tweed
1 hour ago














... The key concept here is that even if the bias current varies with voltage (or anything else), the matched source impedances make sure that this does not contribute to any offset at the output.
– Dave Tweed
1 hour ago






... The key concept here is that even if the bias current varies with voltage (or anything else), the matched source impedances make sure that this does not contribute to any offset at the output.
– Dave Tweed
1 hour ago














@WhatRoughBeast: Finally, there's nothing special about operating "within microvolts of ground", especially for "early models", which pretty much universally required bipolar power supplies.
– Dave Tweed
54 mins ago




@WhatRoughBeast: Finally, there's nothing special about operating "within microvolts of ground", especially for "early models", which pretty much universally required bipolar power supplies.
– Dave Tweed
54 mins ago












While I understand your point, the configuration implicitly assumes that bias current does not vary much in operation. It is intended, after all, to compensate for (essentially) DC offset voltages. While these vary (especially with temperature), any signal-dependent component is not referred to as offset voltage at all, but rather as a consequence of input resistance.
– WhatRoughBeast
51 mins ago






While I understand your point, the configuration implicitly assumes that bias current does not vary much in operation. It is intended, after all, to compensate for (essentially) DC offset voltages. While these vary (especially with temperature), any signal-dependent component is not referred to as offset voltage at all, but rather as a consequence of input resistance.
– WhatRoughBeast
51 mins ago












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