Understanding the purported ambiguity in “Every boy didn’t run”












9














I am a com­puter sci­ence pro­fes­sional.
I am read­ing the book Nat­u­ral Lan­guage Un­der­stand­ing by James Allen where he writes:




“Every boy didn’t run” which is am­bigu­ous be­tween the read­ing in which
some boys didn’t run and some did and no boys ran.




As I am not a na­tive English-lan­guage speaker, I couldn’t un­der­stand
the am­bi­gu­ity here. Please ex­plain how the mean­ing can ever be some boys
didn’t run and some did
here.










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  • Provide the broad context: Full sentence. Along with the previous and following sentences, preferably the entire paragraph. Include a link to the source, if possible. Good Luck.
    – Kris
    yesterday






  • 2




    “Between” normally requires 2 explicit arguments or 1 plural argument: between left and right, between them. Your quote only specifies one explicit argument. What is the other? (Presumably, the case where all boys ran.)
    – Lawrence
    yesterday






  • 7




    That sentence you quoted doesn’t make sense. But presumably the intention is that “every boy didn’t run” can mean either “every boy refrained from running (no boys ran)” or “not every boy ran (but some may have)”.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    yesterday










  • @Janus Bahs Jacquet Grammatically ambiguous, as you point out, but importantly it is not idiomatic. In English we never say "Every one didn't...", but "Nobody did...". But one could say "Not every boy went", if that was the meaning we intended.
    – WS2
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    In mathematical notation, the two interpretations correspond to ¬(∀x∈B r(x)) and ∀x∈B ¬r(x).
    – Dan
    14 hours ago
















9














I am a com­puter sci­ence pro­fes­sional.
I am read­ing the book Nat­u­ral Lan­guage Un­der­stand­ing by James Allen where he writes:




“Every boy didn’t run” which is am­bigu­ous be­tween the read­ing in which
some boys didn’t run and some did and no boys ran.




As I am not a na­tive English-lan­guage speaker, I couldn’t un­der­stand
the am­bi­gu­ity here. Please ex­plain how the mean­ing can ever be some boys
didn’t run and some did
here.










share|improve this question









New contributor




user8673 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




















  • Provide the broad context: Full sentence. Along with the previous and following sentences, preferably the entire paragraph. Include a link to the source, if possible. Good Luck.
    – Kris
    yesterday






  • 2




    “Between” normally requires 2 explicit arguments or 1 plural argument: between left and right, between them. Your quote only specifies one explicit argument. What is the other? (Presumably, the case where all boys ran.)
    – Lawrence
    yesterday






  • 7




    That sentence you quoted doesn’t make sense. But presumably the intention is that “every boy didn’t run” can mean either “every boy refrained from running (no boys ran)” or “not every boy ran (but some may have)”.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    yesterday










  • @Janus Bahs Jacquet Grammatically ambiguous, as you point out, but importantly it is not idiomatic. In English we never say "Every one didn't...", but "Nobody did...". But one could say "Not every boy went", if that was the meaning we intended.
    – WS2
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    In mathematical notation, the two interpretations correspond to ¬(∀x∈B r(x)) and ∀x∈B ¬r(x).
    – Dan
    14 hours ago














9












9








9


0





I am a com­puter sci­ence pro­fes­sional.
I am read­ing the book Nat­u­ral Lan­guage Un­der­stand­ing by James Allen where he writes:




“Every boy didn’t run” which is am­bigu­ous be­tween the read­ing in which
some boys didn’t run and some did and no boys ran.




As I am not a na­tive English-lan­guage speaker, I couldn’t un­der­stand
the am­bi­gu­ity here. Please ex­plain how the mean­ing can ever be some boys
didn’t run and some did
here.










share|improve this question









New contributor




user8673 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











I am a com­puter sci­ence pro­fes­sional.
I am read­ing the book Nat­u­ral Lan­guage Un­der­stand­ing by James Allen where he writes:




“Every boy didn’t run” which is am­bigu­ous be­tween the read­ing in which
some boys didn’t run and some did and no boys ran.




As I am not a na­tive English-lan­guage speaker, I couldn’t un­der­stand
the am­bi­gu­ity here. Please ex­plain how the mean­ing can ever be some boys
didn’t run and some did
here.







ambiguity negation logic






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edited 1 hour ago









Dan

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asked yesterday









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  • Provide the broad context: Full sentence. Along with the previous and following sentences, preferably the entire paragraph. Include a link to the source, if possible. Good Luck.
    – Kris
    yesterday






  • 2




    “Between” normally requires 2 explicit arguments or 1 plural argument: between left and right, between them. Your quote only specifies one explicit argument. What is the other? (Presumably, the case where all boys ran.)
    – Lawrence
    yesterday






  • 7




    That sentence you quoted doesn’t make sense. But presumably the intention is that “every boy didn’t run” can mean either “every boy refrained from running (no boys ran)” or “not every boy ran (but some may have)”.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    yesterday










  • @Janus Bahs Jacquet Grammatically ambiguous, as you point out, but importantly it is not idiomatic. In English we never say "Every one didn't...", but "Nobody did...". But one could say "Not every boy went", if that was the meaning we intended.
    – WS2
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    In mathematical notation, the two interpretations correspond to ¬(∀x∈B r(x)) and ∀x∈B ¬r(x).
    – Dan
    14 hours ago


















  • Provide the broad context: Full sentence. Along with the previous and following sentences, preferably the entire paragraph. Include a link to the source, if possible. Good Luck.
    – Kris
    yesterday






  • 2




    “Between” normally requires 2 explicit arguments or 1 plural argument: between left and right, between them. Your quote only specifies one explicit argument. What is the other? (Presumably, the case where all boys ran.)
    – Lawrence
    yesterday






  • 7




    That sentence you quoted doesn’t make sense. But presumably the intention is that “every boy didn’t run” can mean either “every boy refrained from running (no boys ran)” or “not every boy ran (but some may have)”.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    yesterday










  • @Janus Bahs Jacquet Grammatically ambiguous, as you point out, but importantly it is not idiomatic. In English we never say "Every one didn't...", but "Nobody did...". But one could say "Not every boy went", if that was the meaning we intended.
    – WS2
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    In mathematical notation, the two interpretations correspond to ¬(∀x∈B r(x)) and ∀x∈B ¬r(x).
    – Dan
    14 hours ago
















Provide the broad context: Full sentence. Along with the previous and following sentences, preferably the entire paragraph. Include a link to the source, if possible. Good Luck.
– Kris
yesterday




Provide the broad context: Full sentence. Along with the previous and following sentences, preferably the entire paragraph. Include a link to the source, if possible. Good Luck.
– Kris
yesterday




2




2




“Between” normally requires 2 explicit arguments or 1 plural argument: between left and right, between them. Your quote only specifies one explicit argument. What is the other? (Presumably, the case where all boys ran.)
– Lawrence
yesterday




“Between” normally requires 2 explicit arguments or 1 plural argument: between left and right, between them. Your quote only specifies one explicit argument. What is the other? (Presumably, the case where all boys ran.)
– Lawrence
yesterday




7




7




That sentence you quoted doesn’t make sense. But presumably the intention is that “every boy didn’t run” can mean either “every boy refrained from running (no boys ran)” or “not every boy ran (but some may have)”.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
yesterday




That sentence you quoted doesn’t make sense. But presumably the intention is that “every boy didn’t run” can mean either “every boy refrained from running (no boys ran)” or “not every boy ran (but some may have)”.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
yesterday












@Janus Bahs Jacquet Grammatically ambiguous, as you point out, but importantly it is not idiomatic. In English we never say "Every one didn't...", but "Nobody did...". But one could say "Not every boy went", if that was the meaning we intended.
– WS2
21 hours ago




@Janus Bahs Jacquet Grammatically ambiguous, as you point out, but importantly it is not idiomatic. In English we never say "Every one didn't...", but "Nobody did...". But one could say "Not every boy went", if that was the meaning we intended.
– WS2
21 hours ago




2




2




In mathematical notation, the two interpretations correspond to ¬(∀x∈B r(x)) and ∀x∈B ¬r(x).
– Dan
14 hours ago




In mathematical notation, the two interpretations correspond to ¬(∀x∈B r(x)) and ∀x∈B ¬r(x).
– Dan
14 hours ago










8 Answers
8






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oldest

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17














If "every" is in the scope of "not", it means "It is not the case that every boy ran," or, that is, "Some boy didn't run," or "Not every boy ran." That is the preferred interpretation if every is focused or emphasized: "Every boy didn't run" with rising intonation at the end.



If "not" is in the scope of "every", it means "For every boy it is true that that boy didn't run," or, that is, "No boy ran." For some English speakers, this is not a possible interpretation.






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  • 4




    An anecdote: I was taking a course on semantics from Chuck Fillmore at Ohio State, when he walked into the classroom looking breathless. He reported to the class that he had just learned some perfectly sound English speakers understand "every boy didn't run" (or some similar example) to mean that no boy ran. He seemed shocked.
    – Greg Lee
    17 hours ago






  • 3




    The use of the word "preferred" is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning of "Every boy didn't run" is that no boy ran, and emphasizing "every" doesn't affect that in the least. Moving the negation to "Not every boy ran" makes the sentence much clearer.
    – Monty Harder
    17 hours ago






  • 1




    @MontyHarder And that is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning to me is either, since the sentence is inherently ambiguous. Absent special emphasis and intonation, though, my initial understanding would be that it means “it is not the case that every boy ran”, not “it is the case that no boy ran”. And the emphasis and intonation mentioned in this answer is precisely what can make it unambiguously mean that, excluding the “no boy ran” option entirely. The fact that we disagree so fundamentally on both points here is solid proof that the sentence by itself is ambiguous.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    14 hours ago










  • This same kind of ambiguity appears all over the English language. Does "every wall didn't fall" mean all walls remain standing, some walls remain standing, or something else like no walls are standing but some are leaning (didn't fall all the way). The non-ambiguous meaning must come from surrounding context. What about "every waiter didn't show up for work today" or "every drop didn't spill" or "every tax I legitimately owed was paid to the government"
    – geneSummons
    14 hours ago



















7














The quote would be clearer if it spoke of the difference between the reading in which all boys didn’t run and (that in which) some did.



In the positive version “every boy ran”, there is no ambiguity: 100% of the boys ran.



Logically, “every boy didn’t run” follows the same pattern: for each boy x, the statement asserts that x didn’t run. That is, the negation in “didn’t” applies to the action “run”.



The problem is that in English, the form has also been used idiomatically to assert something different: that not all of the boys ran. That is, the negation in didn’t applies to the qualifier “every”.



Here is a classical example:




  • all that glitters is not gold


Wikipedia traces this (or variants) to a Latin quote dated to the 12th century or earlier, and popularised by Shakespeare in The Merchant of Venice.



The article mentions a 1175 version by the French monk Alain de Lille: "Do not hold everything gold that shines like gold", where the logical meaning matches the literary intent. The version popularised by Shakespeare, however, sounds more catchy even though its logic is wonky.



As a result, the literary meaning of the form “all that (...) is/does not (...)” no longer matches its literal/logical meaning.



One might try to argue that the literary meaning should be deemed ‘incorrect’ or ‘inaccurate’, but it is precisely this kind of idiomatic usage of language that lies behind the ambiguity your quote highlights.






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  • 1




    I believe that this wonkiness in the English language was around long before Shakespeare.
    – Peter Shor
    14 hours ago






  • 1




    @PeterShor You mean to say that all wonkiness isn’t the bard’s fault? :P
    – Lawrence
    12 hours ago



















6














This stack is about usage. First, "every boy didn't run" is a very awkward usage, and would not be used without context. The context will decide which meaning is applicable.




”Your list of possible candidates was way off. The boys on your list didn't run for a student board position."



"Yeah, turns out most of them didn't run."



"No, every boy [on your list] didn't run. You could not have been more wrong."




In this case, the bolded phrase, a perfectly normal usage, sets up the "_______ didn't run" framing that the third speaker repeats. That is why she is using this otherwise awkward form.



Versus




"No, nobody stayed around to make statements. When the police came, everyone ran away."



"That's to be expected from the townies, but are you saying every boy from our school ran? Despite our teachings about morality?



"Well, every boy didn't run. Carl Heinz stayed, the Peterson brothers, Conrad Hamm, which you'd expect... A few others.




In these usages, the meaning pops right out. And this is the kind of usage where "every boy didn't run" is appropriate. It should not be used where it would create an ambiguity. If you do, the reader will infer from context which meaning is most likely, just as you did above.






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    4














    I think it's meant to be ambiguous between



    only true if 0% ran
    or
    not 100% ran (i.e. true if 50% ran).



    Edit:
    I found the excerpt of the book in question - looks like I was right:




    In addition, operators such as negation and tense are also scope sensitive. For example, the sentence Every boy didn't run is ambiguous between the reading in which some boys didn't run and some did, that is,
    (NOT (EVERY bl: (BOY1 bl) (RUN1 bl)))
    and the reading where no boys ran, that is,
    (EVERY bl : (BOY1 bl) (NOT (RUN 1 bl))) These two readings are captured by the single logical form







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    • 1




      Ah, the OP has incorrectly interpreted the sentence. The book doesn't say the two options are "some boys didn't run" and "some did", rather it says the two options are "some boys didn't run and some did" and "no boys ran".
      – AndyT
      yesterday



















    3














    A linguistic perspective might help here.



    We (linguists) typically talk of movement - a word starts in one place in the sentence and moves to another before it is spoken. Ignoring the technical aspects of that (and ignoring that the verb has to change slightly depending on how the sentence is written), there are two possible starting sentences here:




    1. Not every boy did run


    2. Every boy did not run



    In the first, we get some boys didn’t run and some did and in the second we get no boys ran. In both of these cases, it is possible for not to move to did and become didn't, leaving us with the reading "Every boy didn't run". The first is also rather stilted and sounds weird. As @GregLee pointed out, emphasis helps with clarifying which meaning is intended.



    For these reasons, it's more common (in writing) to see the phrases




    1. Not every boy ran


    2. No boy ran



    Because those are unambiguous.






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    • My thought was that "Every boy didn't run" doesn't survive double negation without having to decide where to put the not in "Every boy ran". I think this answer covers it nicely.
      – traktor53
      10 hours ago



















    1














    Of course "didn't" here is a contraction for "did not". It's ambiguous because it is not clear what "not" refers to.



    If "not" refers to "run", then it's "(every boy) did (not run)". That is, every boy did this. What did they do? They did not run.



    If "not" refers to "every", then it's "(not every boy) did (run)". That is, not every boy did this, so some of the boys did not do this. What is it that some of the boys did not do? Run.



    I, and I think most English readers, would generally assume that the first meaning was meant.



    A more clear way to say it if you meant that none of the boys ran would be to say, "None of the boys ran." If you meant to say that some ran and some didn't, you could say, "Not every boy ran".






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      I really don't think most English speakers would interpret it like this—possibly most of the ones who have taken a course which deals in logic might.
      – Peter Shor
      19 hours ago












    • @PeterShor Maybe so, I was basically guessing about which way most readers would take it, and I tried to indicate that with the words "I think". Anyway, that's the point: it's ambiguous.
      – Jay
      17 hours ago



















    1














    Consider the following dialog where two people describe an incident:



    "There was panic. Every boy ran for cover."



    "Every boy didn't run."



    It might be more "formally correct" if the second speaker had said "Not every boy ran," but the sentence he actually used emphasised the difference between the two speakers' descriptions - the second speaker is emphasising the difference in behaviour between running and not running, not the the number of boys who didn't run.



    On the other hand, if you consider the sentence as a logical proposition and ignore the context in which it was spoken or written, "Every boy didn't run" is logically identical to "No boy ran".






    share|improve this answer





























      1















      “Every boy didn’t run”




      is just not how you say anything. It's not grammatical. So it actually doesn't mean anything at all.



      But an English speaker wants to squeeze some meaning out of it. What is called ambiguity is really the different ways one imagines the speaker intended but fouled up.



      English (or human language) isn't formal logic, so the words don't apply necessarily in a strict order. So forcing one meaning on the phrase would be translated back into words as




      Not every boy ran (there are some boys who did not run but some probably did, otherwise you would say 'no boy ran'),




      or




      No boy ran (For every boy, it is not the case that the boy ran)




      as though 'every boy' is like a logical universal quantifier over all boys and the predicate says 'the boy did not run'.



      It is problematic to say the sentence is ambiguous because it is not a pattern interpretable directly in English. So you have to guess what is meant, and in those collection of words, there are pretty much only two directions to go.






      share|improve this answer





















      • While it is easy to agree that 'every boy didn't run' is a formulation that it would inadvisable to use, is it really ungrammatical? Which rule of grammar is violated by it?
        – jsw29
        11 hours ago











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      8 Answers
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      8 Answers
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      If "every" is in the scope of "not", it means "It is not the case that every boy ran," or, that is, "Some boy didn't run," or "Not every boy ran." That is the preferred interpretation if every is focused or emphasized: "Every boy didn't run" with rising intonation at the end.



      If "not" is in the scope of "every", it means "For every boy it is true that that boy didn't run," or, that is, "No boy ran." For some English speakers, this is not a possible interpretation.






      share|improve this answer



















      • 4




        An anecdote: I was taking a course on semantics from Chuck Fillmore at Ohio State, when he walked into the classroom looking breathless. He reported to the class that he had just learned some perfectly sound English speakers understand "every boy didn't run" (or some similar example) to mean that no boy ran. He seemed shocked.
        – Greg Lee
        17 hours ago






      • 3




        The use of the word "preferred" is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning of "Every boy didn't run" is that no boy ran, and emphasizing "every" doesn't affect that in the least. Moving the negation to "Not every boy ran" makes the sentence much clearer.
        – Monty Harder
        17 hours ago






      • 1




        @MontyHarder And that is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning to me is either, since the sentence is inherently ambiguous. Absent special emphasis and intonation, though, my initial understanding would be that it means “it is not the case that every boy ran”, not “it is the case that no boy ran”. And the emphasis and intonation mentioned in this answer is precisely what can make it unambiguously mean that, excluding the “no boy ran” option entirely. The fact that we disagree so fundamentally on both points here is solid proof that the sentence by itself is ambiguous.
        – Janus Bahs Jacquet
        14 hours ago










      • This same kind of ambiguity appears all over the English language. Does "every wall didn't fall" mean all walls remain standing, some walls remain standing, or something else like no walls are standing but some are leaning (didn't fall all the way). The non-ambiguous meaning must come from surrounding context. What about "every waiter didn't show up for work today" or "every drop didn't spill" or "every tax I legitimately owed was paid to the government"
        – geneSummons
        14 hours ago
















      17














      If "every" is in the scope of "not", it means "It is not the case that every boy ran," or, that is, "Some boy didn't run," or "Not every boy ran." That is the preferred interpretation if every is focused or emphasized: "Every boy didn't run" with rising intonation at the end.



      If "not" is in the scope of "every", it means "For every boy it is true that that boy didn't run," or, that is, "No boy ran." For some English speakers, this is not a possible interpretation.






      share|improve this answer



















      • 4




        An anecdote: I was taking a course on semantics from Chuck Fillmore at Ohio State, when he walked into the classroom looking breathless. He reported to the class that he had just learned some perfectly sound English speakers understand "every boy didn't run" (or some similar example) to mean that no boy ran. He seemed shocked.
        – Greg Lee
        17 hours ago






      • 3




        The use of the word "preferred" is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning of "Every boy didn't run" is that no boy ran, and emphasizing "every" doesn't affect that in the least. Moving the negation to "Not every boy ran" makes the sentence much clearer.
        – Monty Harder
        17 hours ago






      • 1




        @MontyHarder And that is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning to me is either, since the sentence is inherently ambiguous. Absent special emphasis and intonation, though, my initial understanding would be that it means “it is not the case that every boy ran”, not “it is the case that no boy ran”. And the emphasis and intonation mentioned in this answer is precisely what can make it unambiguously mean that, excluding the “no boy ran” option entirely. The fact that we disagree so fundamentally on both points here is solid proof that the sentence by itself is ambiguous.
        – Janus Bahs Jacquet
        14 hours ago










      • This same kind of ambiguity appears all over the English language. Does "every wall didn't fall" mean all walls remain standing, some walls remain standing, or something else like no walls are standing but some are leaning (didn't fall all the way). The non-ambiguous meaning must come from surrounding context. What about "every waiter didn't show up for work today" or "every drop didn't spill" or "every tax I legitimately owed was paid to the government"
        – geneSummons
        14 hours ago














      17












      17








      17






      If "every" is in the scope of "not", it means "It is not the case that every boy ran," or, that is, "Some boy didn't run," or "Not every boy ran." That is the preferred interpretation if every is focused or emphasized: "Every boy didn't run" with rising intonation at the end.



      If "not" is in the scope of "every", it means "For every boy it is true that that boy didn't run," or, that is, "No boy ran." For some English speakers, this is not a possible interpretation.






      share|improve this answer














      If "every" is in the scope of "not", it means "It is not the case that every boy ran," or, that is, "Some boy didn't run," or "Not every boy ran." That is the preferred interpretation if every is focused or emphasized: "Every boy didn't run" with rising intonation at the end.



      If "not" is in the scope of "every", it means "For every boy it is true that that boy didn't run," or, that is, "No boy ran." For some English speakers, this is not a possible interpretation.







      share|improve this answer














      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer








      edited yesterday

























      answered yesterday









      Greg Lee

      14.3k2830




      14.3k2830








      • 4




        An anecdote: I was taking a course on semantics from Chuck Fillmore at Ohio State, when he walked into the classroom looking breathless. He reported to the class that he had just learned some perfectly sound English speakers understand "every boy didn't run" (or some similar example) to mean that no boy ran. He seemed shocked.
        – Greg Lee
        17 hours ago






      • 3




        The use of the word "preferred" is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning of "Every boy didn't run" is that no boy ran, and emphasizing "every" doesn't affect that in the least. Moving the negation to "Not every boy ran" makes the sentence much clearer.
        – Monty Harder
        17 hours ago






      • 1




        @MontyHarder And that is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning to me is either, since the sentence is inherently ambiguous. Absent special emphasis and intonation, though, my initial understanding would be that it means “it is not the case that every boy ran”, not “it is the case that no boy ran”. And the emphasis and intonation mentioned in this answer is precisely what can make it unambiguously mean that, excluding the “no boy ran” option entirely. The fact that we disagree so fundamentally on both points here is solid proof that the sentence by itself is ambiguous.
        – Janus Bahs Jacquet
        14 hours ago










      • This same kind of ambiguity appears all over the English language. Does "every wall didn't fall" mean all walls remain standing, some walls remain standing, or something else like no walls are standing but some are leaning (didn't fall all the way). The non-ambiguous meaning must come from surrounding context. What about "every waiter didn't show up for work today" or "every drop didn't spill" or "every tax I legitimately owed was paid to the government"
        – geneSummons
        14 hours ago














      • 4




        An anecdote: I was taking a course on semantics from Chuck Fillmore at Ohio State, when he walked into the classroom looking breathless. He reported to the class that he had just learned some perfectly sound English speakers understand "every boy didn't run" (or some similar example) to mean that no boy ran. He seemed shocked.
        – Greg Lee
        17 hours ago






      • 3




        The use of the word "preferred" is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning of "Every boy didn't run" is that no boy ran, and emphasizing "every" doesn't affect that in the least. Moving the negation to "Not every boy ran" makes the sentence much clearer.
        – Monty Harder
        17 hours ago






      • 1




        @MontyHarder And that is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning to me is either, since the sentence is inherently ambiguous. Absent special emphasis and intonation, though, my initial understanding would be that it means “it is not the case that every boy ran”, not “it is the case that no boy ran”. And the emphasis and intonation mentioned in this answer is precisely what can make it unambiguously mean that, excluding the “no boy ran” option entirely. The fact that we disagree so fundamentally on both points here is solid proof that the sentence by itself is ambiguous.
        – Janus Bahs Jacquet
        14 hours ago










      • This same kind of ambiguity appears all over the English language. Does "every wall didn't fall" mean all walls remain standing, some walls remain standing, or something else like no walls are standing but some are leaning (didn't fall all the way). The non-ambiguous meaning must come from surrounding context. What about "every waiter didn't show up for work today" or "every drop didn't spill" or "every tax I legitimately owed was paid to the government"
        – geneSummons
        14 hours ago








      4




      4




      An anecdote: I was taking a course on semantics from Chuck Fillmore at Ohio State, when he walked into the classroom looking breathless. He reported to the class that he had just learned some perfectly sound English speakers understand "every boy didn't run" (or some similar example) to mean that no boy ran. He seemed shocked.
      – Greg Lee
      17 hours ago




      An anecdote: I was taking a course on semantics from Chuck Fillmore at Ohio State, when he walked into the classroom looking breathless. He reported to the class that he had just learned some perfectly sound English speakers understand "every boy didn't run" (or some similar example) to mean that no boy ran. He seemed shocked.
      – Greg Lee
      17 hours ago




      3




      3




      The use of the word "preferred" is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning of "Every boy didn't run" is that no boy ran, and emphasizing "every" doesn't affect that in the least. Moving the negation to "Not every boy ran" makes the sentence much clearer.
      – Monty Harder
      17 hours ago




      The use of the word "preferred" is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning of "Every boy didn't run" is that no boy ran, and emphasizing "every" doesn't affect that in the least. Moving the negation to "Not every boy ran" makes the sentence much clearer.
      – Monty Harder
      17 hours ago




      1




      1




      @MontyHarder And that is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning to me is either, since the sentence is inherently ambiguous. Absent special emphasis and intonation, though, my initial understanding would be that it means “it is not the case that every boy ran”, not “it is the case that no boy ran”. And the emphasis and intonation mentioned in this answer is precisely what can make it unambiguously mean that, excluding the “no boy ran” option entirely. The fact that we disagree so fundamentally on both points here is solid proof that the sentence by itself is ambiguous.
      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      14 hours ago




      @MontyHarder And that is your opinion, of course. The clear, literal meaning to me is either, since the sentence is inherently ambiguous. Absent special emphasis and intonation, though, my initial understanding would be that it means “it is not the case that every boy ran”, not “it is the case that no boy ran”. And the emphasis and intonation mentioned in this answer is precisely what can make it unambiguously mean that, excluding the “no boy ran” option entirely. The fact that we disagree so fundamentally on both points here is solid proof that the sentence by itself is ambiguous.
      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      14 hours ago












      This same kind of ambiguity appears all over the English language. Does "every wall didn't fall" mean all walls remain standing, some walls remain standing, or something else like no walls are standing but some are leaning (didn't fall all the way). The non-ambiguous meaning must come from surrounding context. What about "every waiter didn't show up for work today" or "every drop didn't spill" or "every tax I legitimately owed was paid to the government"
      – geneSummons
      14 hours ago




      This same kind of ambiguity appears all over the English language. Does "every wall didn't fall" mean all walls remain standing, some walls remain standing, or something else like no walls are standing but some are leaning (didn't fall all the way). The non-ambiguous meaning must come from surrounding context. What about "every waiter didn't show up for work today" or "every drop didn't spill" or "every tax I legitimately owed was paid to the government"
      – geneSummons
      14 hours ago













      7














      The quote would be clearer if it spoke of the difference between the reading in which all boys didn’t run and (that in which) some did.



      In the positive version “every boy ran”, there is no ambiguity: 100% of the boys ran.



      Logically, “every boy didn’t run” follows the same pattern: for each boy x, the statement asserts that x didn’t run. That is, the negation in “didn’t” applies to the action “run”.



      The problem is that in English, the form has also been used idiomatically to assert something different: that not all of the boys ran. That is, the negation in didn’t applies to the qualifier “every”.



      Here is a classical example:




      • all that glitters is not gold


      Wikipedia traces this (or variants) to a Latin quote dated to the 12th century or earlier, and popularised by Shakespeare in The Merchant of Venice.



      The article mentions a 1175 version by the French monk Alain de Lille: "Do not hold everything gold that shines like gold", where the logical meaning matches the literary intent. The version popularised by Shakespeare, however, sounds more catchy even though its logic is wonky.



      As a result, the literary meaning of the form “all that (...) is/does not (...)” no longer matches its literal/logical meaning.



      One might try to argue that the literary meaning should be deemed ‘incorrect’ or ‘inaccurate’, but it is precisely this kind of idiomatic usage of language that lies behind the ambiguity your quote highlights.






      share|improve this answer



















      • 1




        I believe that this wonkiness in the English language was around long before Shakespeare.
        – Peter Shor
        14 hours ago






      • 1




        @PeterShor You mean to say that all wonkiness isn’t the bard’s fault? :P
        – Lawrence
        12 hours ago
















      7














      The quote would be clearer if it spoke of the difference between the reading in which all boys didn’t run and (that in which) some did.



      In the positive version “every boy ran”, there is no ambiguity: 100% of the boys ran.



      Logically, “every boy didn’t run” follows the same pattern: for each boy x, the statement asserts that x didn’t run. That is, the negation in “didn’t” applies to the action “run”.



      The problem is that in English, the form has also been used idiomatically to assert something different: that not all of the boys ran. That is, the negation in didn’t applies to the qualifier “every”.



      Here is a classical example:




      • all that glitters is not gold


      Wikipedia traces this (or variants) to a Latin quote dated to the 12th century or earlier, and popularised by Shakespeare in The Merchant of Venice.



      The article mentions a 1175 version by the French monk Alain de Lille: "Do not hold everything gold that shines like gold", where the logical meaning matches the literary intent. The version popularised by Shakespeare, however, sounds more catchy even though its logic is wonky.



      As a result, the literary meaning of the form “all that (...) is/does not (...)” no longer matches its literal/logical meaning.



      One might try to argue that the literary meaning should be deemed ‘incorrect’ or ‘inaccurate’, but it is precisely this kind of idiomatic usage of language that lies behind the ambiguity your quote highlights.






      share|improve this answer



















      • 1




        I believe that this wonkiness in the English language was around long before Shakespeare.
        – Peter Shor
        14 hours ago






      • 1




        @PeterShor You mean to say that all wonkiness isn’t the bard’s fault? :P
        – Lawrence
        12 hours ago














      7












      7








      7






      The quote would be clearer if it spoke of the difference between the reading in which all boys didn’t run and (that in which) some did.



      In the positive version “every boy ran”, there is no ambiguity: 100% of the boys ran.



      Logically, “every boy didn’t run” follows the same pattern: for each boy x, the statement asserts that x didn’t run. That is, the negation in “didn’t” applies to the action “run”.



      The problem is that in English, the form has also been used idiomatically to assert something different: that not all of the boys ran. That is, the negation in didn’t applies to the qualifier “every”.



      Here is a classical example:




      • all that glitters is not gold


      Wikipedia traces this (or variants) to a Latin quote dated to the 12th century or earlier, and popularised by Shakespeare in The Merchant of Venice.



      The article mentions a 1175 version by the French monk Alain de Lille: "Do not hold everything gold that shines like gold", where the logical meaning matches the literary intent. The version popularised by Shakespeare, however, sounds more catchy even though its logic is wonky.



      As a result, the literary meaning of the form “all that (...) is/does not (...)” no longer matches its literal/logical meaning.



      One might try to argue that the literary meaning should be deemed ‘incorrect’ or ‘inaccurate’, but it is precisely this kind of idiomatic usage of language that lies behind the ambiguity your quote highlights.






      share|improve this answer














      The quote would be clearer if it spoke of the difference between the reading in which all boys didn’t run and (that in which) some did.



      In the positive version “every boy ran”, there is no ambiguity: 100% of the boys ran.



      Logically, “every boy didn’t run” follows the same pattern: for each boy x, the statement asserts that x didn’t run. That is, the negation in “didn’t” applies to the action “run”.



      The problem is that in English, the form has also been used idiomatically to assert something different: that not all of the boys ran. That is, the negation in didn’t applies to the qualifier “every”.



      Here is a classical example:




      • all that glitters is not gold


      Wikipedia traces this (or variants) to a Latin quote dated to the 12th century or earlier, and popularised by Shakespeare in The Merchant of Venice.



      The article mentions a 1175 version by the French monk Alain de Lille: "Do not hold everything gold that shines like gold", where the logical meaning matches the literary intent. The version popularised by Shakespeare, however, sounds more catchy even though its logic is wonky.



      As a result, the literary meaning of the form “all that (...) is/does not (...)” no longer matches its literal/logical meaning.



      One might try to argue that the literary meaning should be deemed ‘incorrect’ or ‘inaccurate’, but it is precisely this kind of idiomatic usage of language that lies behind the ambiguity your quote highlights.







      share|improve this answer














      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer








      edited yesterday

























      answered yesterday









      Lawrence

      30.9k561108




      30.9k561108








      • 1




        I believe that this wonkiness in the English language was around long before Shakespeare.
        – Peter Shor
        14 hours ago






      • 1




        @PeterShor You mean to say that all wonkiness isn’t the bard’s fault? :P
        – Lawrence
        12 hours ago














      • 1




        I believe that this wonkiness in the English language was around long before Shakespeare.
        – Peter Shor
        14 hours ago






      • 1




        @PeterShor You mean to say that all wonkiness isn’t the bard’s fault? :P
        – Lawrence
        12 hours ago








      1




      1




      I believe that this wonkiness in the English language was around long before Shakespeare.
      – Peter Shor
      14 hours ago




      I believe that this wonkiness in the English language was around long before Shakespeare.
      – Peter Shor
      14 hours ago




      1




      1




      @PeterShor You mean to say that all wonkiness isn’t the bard’s fault? :P
      – Lawrence
      12 hours ago




      @PeterShor You mean to say that all wonkiness isn’t the bard’s fault? :P
      – Lawrence
      12 hours ago











      6














      This stack is about usage. First, "every boy didn't run" is a very awkward usage, and would not be used without context. The context will decide which meaning is applicable.




      ”Your list of possible candidates was way off. The boys on your list didn't run for a student board position."



      "Yeah, turns out most of them didn't run."



      "No, every boy [on your list] didn't run. You could not have been more wrong."




      In this case, the bolded phrase, a perfectly normal usage, sets up the "_______ didn't run" framing that the third speaker repeats. That is why she is using this otherwise awkward form.



      Versus




      "No, nobody stayed around to make statements. When the police came, everyone ran away."



      "That's to be expected from the townies, but are you saying every boy from our school ran? Despite our teachings about morality?



      "Well, every boy didn't run. Carl Heinz stayed, the Peterson brothers, Conrad Hamm, which you'd expect... A few others.




      In these usages, the meaning pops right out. And this is the kind of usage where "every boy didn't run" is appropriate. It should not be used where it would create an ambiguity. If you do, the reader will infer from context which meaning is most likely, just as you did above.






      share|improve this answer




























        6














        This stack is about usage. First, "every boy didn't run" is a very awkward usage, and would not be used without context. The context will decide which meaning is applicable.




        ”Your list of possible candidates was way off. The boys on your list didn't run for a student board position."



        "Yeah, turns out most of them didn't run."



        "No, every boy [on your list] didn't run. You could not have been more wrong."




        In this case, the bolded phrase, a perfectly normal usage, sets up the "_______ didn't run" framing that the third speaker repeats. That is why she is using this otherwise awkward form.



        Versus




        "No, nobody stayed around to make statements. When the police came, everyone ran away."



        "That's to be expected from the townies, but are you saying every boy from our school ran? Despite our teachings about morality?



        "Well, every boy didn't run. Carl Heinz stayed, the Peterson brothers, Conrad Hamm, which you'd expect... A few others.




        In these usages, the meaning pops right out. And this is the kind of usage where "every boy didn't run" is appropriate. It should not be used where it would create an ambiguity. If you do, the reader will infer from context which meaning is most likely, just as you did above.






        share|improve this answer


























          6












          6








          6






          This stack is about usage. First, "every boy didn't run" is a very awkward usage, and would not be used without context. The context will decide which meaning is applicable.




          ”Your list of possible candidates was way off. The boys on your list didn't run for a student board position."



          "Yeah, turns out most of them didn't run."



          "No, every boy [on your list] didn't run. You could not have been more wrong."




          In this case, the bolded phrase, a perfectly normal usage, sets up the "_______ didn't run" framing that the third speaker repeats. That is why she is using this otherwise awkward form.



          Versus




          "No, nobody stayed around to make statements. When the police came, everyone ran away."



          "That's to be expected from the townies, but are you saying every boy from our school ran? Despite our teachings about morality?



          "Well, every boy didn't run. Carl Heinz stayed, the Peterson brothers, Conrad Hamm, which you'd expect... A few others.




          In these usages, the meaning pops right out. And this is the kind of usage where "every boy didn't run" is appropriate. It should not be used where it would create an ambiguity. If you do, the reader will infer from context which meaning is most likely, just as you did above.






          share|improve this answer














          This stack is about usage. First, "every boy didn't run" is a very awkward usage, and would not be used without context. The context will decide which meaning is applicable.




          ”Your list of possible candidates was way off. The boys on your list didn't run for a student board position."



          "Yeah, turns out most of them didn't run."



          "No, every boy [on your list] didn't run. You could not have been more wrong."




          In this case, the bolded phrase, a perfectly normal usage, sets up the "_______ didn't run" framing that the third speaker repeats. That is why she is using this otherwise awkward form.



          Versus




          "No, nobody stayed around to make statements. When the police came, everyone ran away."



          "That's to be expected from the townies, but are you saying every boy from our school ran? Despite our teachings about morality?



          "Well, every boy didn't run. Carl Heinz stayed, the Peterson brothers, Conrad Hamm, which you'd expect... A few others.




          In these usages, the meaning pops right out. And this is the kind of usage where "every boy didn't run" is appropriate. It should not be used where it would create an ambiguity. If you do, the reader will infer from context which meaning is most likely, just as you did above.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited 14 hours ago

























          answered 14 hours ago









          Harper

          59714




          59714























              4














              I think it's meant to be ambiguous between



              only true if 0% ran
              or
              not 100% ran (i.e. true if 50% ran).



              Edit:
              I found the excerpt of the book in question - looks like I was right:




              In addition, operators such as negation and tense are also scope sensitive. For example, the sentence Every boy didn't run is ambiguous between the reading in which some boys didn't run and some did, that is,
              (NOT (EVERY bl: (BOY1 bl) (RUN1 bl)))
              and the reading where no boys ran, that is,
              (EVERY bl : (BOY1 bl) (NOT (RUN 1 bl))) These two readings are captured by the single logical form







              share|improve this answer










              New contributor




              pacifist is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.














              • 1




                Ah, the OP has incorrectly interpreted the sentence. The book doesn't say the two options are "some boys didn't run" and "some did", rather it says the two options are "some boys didn't run and some did" and "no boys ran".
                – AndyT
                yesterday
















              4














              I think it's meant to be ambiguous between



              only true if 0% ran
              or
              not 100% ran (i.e. true if 50% ran).



              Edit:
              I found the excerpt of the book in question - looks like I was right:




              In addition, operators such as negation and tense are also scope sensitive. For example, the sentence Every boy didn't run is ambiguous between the reading in which some boys didn't run and some did, that is,
              (NOT (EVERY bl: (BOY1 bl) (RUN1 bl)))
              and the reading where no boys ran, that is,
              (EVERY bl : (BOY1 bl) (NOT (RUN 1 bl))) These two readings are captured by the single logical form







              share|improve this answer










              New contributor




              pacifist is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.














              • 1




                Ah, the OP has incorrectly interpreted the sentence. The book doesn't say the two options are "some boys didn't run" and "some did", rather it says the two options are "some boys didn't run and some did" and "no boys ran".
                – AndyT
                yesterday














              4












              4








              4






              I think it's meant to be ambiguous between



              only true if 0% ran
              or
              not 100% ran (i.e. true if 50% ran).



              Edit:
              I found the excerpt of the book in question - looks like I was right:




              In addition, operators such as negation and tense are also scope sensitive. For example, the sentence Every boy didn't run is ambiguous between the reading in which some boys didn't run and some did, that is,
              (NOT (EVERY bl: (BOY1 bl) (RUN1 bl)))
              and the reading where no boys ran, that is,
              (EVERY bl : (BOY1 bl) (NOT (RUN 1 bl))) These two readings are captured by the single logical form







              share|improve this answer










              New contributor




              pacifist is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              I think it's meant to be ambiguous between



              only true if 0% ran
              or
              not 100% ran (i.e. true if 50% ran).



              Edit:
              I found the excerpt of the book in question - looks like I was right:




              In addition, operators such as negation and tense are also scope sensitive. For example, the sentence Every boy didn't run is ambiguous between the reading in which some boys didn't run and some did, that is,
              (NOT (EVERY bl: (BOY1 bl) (RUN1 bl)))
              and the reading where no boys ran, that is,
              (EVERY bl : (BOY1 bl) (NOT (RUN 1 bl))) These two readings are captured by the single logical form








              share|improve this answer










              New contributor




              pacifist is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer








              edited yesterday





















              New contributor




              pacifist is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              answered yesterday









              pacifist

              1413




              1413




              New contributor




              pacifist is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.





              New contributor





              pacifist is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.






              pacifist is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.








              • 1




                Ah, the OP has incorrectly interpreted the sentence. The book doesn't say the two options are "some boys didn't run" and "some did", rather it says the two options are "some boys didn't run and some did" and "no boys ran".
                – AndyT
                yesterday














              • 1




                Ah, the OP has incorrectly interpreted the sentence. The book doesn't say the two options are "some boys didn't run" and "some did", rather it says the two options are "some boys didn't run and some did" and "no boys ran".
                – AndyT
                yesterday








              1




              1




              Ah, the OP has incorrectly interpreted the sentence. The book doesn't say the two options are "some boys didn't run" and "some did", rather it says the two options are "some boys didn't run and some did" and "no boys ran".
              – AndyT
              yesterday




              Ah, the OP has incorrectly interpreted the sentence. The book doesn't say the two options are "some boys didn't run" and "some did", rather it says the two options are "some boys didn't run and some did" and "no boys ran".
              – AndyT
              yesterday











              3














              A linguistic perspective might help here.



              We (linguists) typically talk of movement - a word starts in one place in the sentence and moves to another before it is spoken. Ignoring the technical aspects of that (and ignoring that the verb has to change slightly depending on how the sentence is written), there are two possible starting sentences here:




              1. Not every boy did run


              2. Every boy did not run



              In the first, we get some boys didn’t run and some did and in the second we get no boys ran. In both of these cases, it is possible for not to move to did and become didn't, leaving us with the reading "Every boy didn't run". The first is also rather stilted and sounds weird. As @GregLee pointed out, emphasis helps with clarifying which meaning is intended.



              For these reasons, it's more common (in writing) to see the phrases




              1. Not every boy ran


              2. No boy ran



              Because those are unambiguous.






              share|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Spitemaster is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.


















              • My thought was that "Every boy didn't run" doesn't survive double negation without having to decide where to put the not in "Every boy ran". I think this answer covers it nicely.
                – traktor53
                10 hours ago
















              3














              A linguistic perspective might help here.



              We (linguists) typically talk of movement - a word starts in one place in the sentence and moves to another before it is spoken. Ignoring the technical aspects of that (and ignoring that the verb has to change slightly depending on how the sentence is written), there are two possible starting sentences here:




              1. Not every boy did run


              2. Every boy did not run



              In the first, we get some boys didn’t run and some did and in the second we get no boys ran. In both of these cases, it is possible for not to move to did and become didn't, leaving us with the reading "Every boy didn't run". The first is also rather stilted and sounds weird. As @GregLee pointed out, emphasis helps with clarifying which meaning is intended.



              For these reasons, it's more common (in writing) to see the phrases




              1. Not every boy ran


              2. No boy ran



              Because those are unambiguous.






              share|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Spitemaster is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.


















              • My thought was that "Every boy didn't run" doesn't survive double negation without having to decide where to put the not in "Every boy ran". I think this answer covers it nicely.
                – traktor53
                10 hours ago














              3












              3








              3






              A linguistic perspective might help here.



              We (linguists) typically talk of movement - a word starts in one place in the sentence and moves to another before it is spoken. Ignoring the technical aspects of that (and ignoring that the verb has to change slightly depending on how the sentence is written), there are two possible starting sentences here:




              1. Not every boy did run


              2. Every boy did not run



              In the first, we get some boys didn’t run and some did and in the second we get no boys ran. In both of these cases, it is possible for not to move to did and become didn't, leaving us with the reading "Every boy didn't run". The first is also rather stilted and sounds weird. As @GregLee pointed out, emphasis helps with clarifying which meaning is intended.



              For these reasons, it's more common (in writing) to see the phrases




              1. Not every boy ran


              2. No boy ran



              Because those are unambiguous.






              share|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Spitemaster is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              A linguistic perspective might help here.



              We (linguists) typically talk of movement - a word starts in one place in the sentence and moves to another before it is spoken. Ignoring the technical aspects of that (and ignoring that the verb has to change slightly depending on how the sentence is written), there are two possible starting sentences here:




              1. Not every boy did run


              2. Every boy did not run



              In the first, we get some boys didn’t run and some did and in the second we get no boys ran. In both of these cases, it is possible for not to move to did and become didn't, leaving us with the reading "Every boy didn't run". The first is also rather stilted and sounds weird. As @GregLee pointed out, emphasis helps with clarifying which meaning is intended.



              For these reasons, it's more common (in writing) to see the phrases




              1. Not every boy ran


              2. No boy ran



              Because those are unambiguous.







              share|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Spitemaster is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer






              New contributor




              Spitemaster is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.









              answered 19 hours ago









              Spitemaster

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              • My thought was that "Every boy didn't run" doesn't survive double negation without having to decide where to put the not in "Every boy ran". I think this answer covers it nicely.
                – traktor53
                10 hours ago


















              • My thought was that "Every boy didn't run" doesn't survive double negation without having to decide where to put the not in "Every boy ran". I think this answer covers it nicely.
                – traktor53
                10 hours ago
















              My thought was that "Every boy didn't run" doesn't survive double negation without having to decide where to put the not in "Every boy ran". I think this answer covers it nicely.
              – traktor53
              10 hours ago




              My thought was that "Every boy didn't run" doesn't survive double negation without having to decide where to put the not in "Every boy ran". I think this answer covers it nicely.
              – traktor53
              10 hours ago











              1














              Of course "didn't" here is a contraction for "did not". It's ambiguous because it is not clear what "not" refers to.



              If "not" refers to "run", then it's "(every boy) did (not run)". That is, every boy did this. What did they do? They did not run.



              If "not" refers to "every", then it's "(not every boy) did (run)". That is, not every boy did this, so some of the boys did not do this. What is it that some of the boys did not do? Run.



              I, and I think most English readers, would generally assume that the first meaning was meant.



              A more clear way to say it if you meant that none of the boys ran would be to say, "None of the boys ran." If you meant to say that some ran and some didn't, you could say, "Not every boy ran".






              share|improve this answer

















              • 1




                I really don't think most English speakers would interpret it like this—possibly most of the ones who have taken a course which deals in logic might.
                – Peter Shor
                19 hours ago












              • @PeterShor Maybe so, I was basically guessing about which way most readers would take it, and I tried to indicate that with the words "I think". Anyway, that's the point: it's ambiguous.
                – Jay
                17 hours ago
















              1














              Of course "didn't" here is a contraction for "did not". It's ambiguous because it is not clear what "not" refers to.



              If "not" refers to "run", then it's "(every boy) did (not run)". That is, every boy did this. What did they do? They did not run.



              If "not" refers to "every", then it's "(not every boy) did (run)". That is, not every boy did this, so some of the boys did not do this. What is it that some of the boys did not do? Run.



              I, and I think most English readers, would generally assume that the first meaning was meant.



              A more clear way to say it if you meant that none of the boys ran would be to say, "None of the boys ran." If you meant to say that some ran and some didn't, you could say, "Not every boy ran".






              share|improve this answer

















              • 1




                I really don't think most English speakers would interpret it like this—possibly most of the ones who have taken a course which deals in logic might.
                – Peter Shor
                19 hours ago












              • @PeterShor Maybe so, I was basically guessing about which way most readers would take it, and I tried to indicate that with the words "I think". Anyway, that's the point: it's ambiguous.
                – Jay
                17 hours ago














              1












              1








              1






              Of course "didn't" here is a contraction for "did not". It's ambiguous because it is not clear what "not" refers to.



              If "not" refers to "run", then it's "(every boy) did (not run)". That is, every boy did this. What did they do? They did not run.



              If "not" refers to "every", then it's "(not every boy) did (run)". That is, not every boy did this, so some of the boys did not do this. What is it that some of the boys did not do? Run.



              I, and I think most English readers, would generally assume that the first meaning was meant.



              A more clear way to say it if you meant that none of the boys ran would be to say, "None of the boys ran." If you meant to say that some ran and some didn't, you could say, "Not every boy ran".






              share|improve this answer












              Of course "didn't" here is a contraction for "did not". It's ambiguous because it is not clear what "not" refers to.



              If "not" refers to "run", then it's "(every boy) did (not run)". That is, every boy did this. What did they do? They did not run.



              If "not" refers to "every", then it's "(not every boy) did (run)". That is, not every boy did this, so some of the boys did not do this. What is it that some of the boys did not do? Run.



              I, and I think most English readers, would generally assume that the first meaning was meant.



              A more clear way to say it if you meant that none of the boys ran would be to say, "None of the boys ran." If you meant to say that some ran and some didn't, you could say, "Not every boy ran".







              share|improve this answer












              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer










              answered 19 hours ago









              Jay

              31.3k34691




              31.3k34691








              • 1




                I really don't think most English speakers would interpret it like this—possibly most of the ones who have taken a course which deals in logic might.
                – Peter Shor
                19 hours ago












              • @PeterShor Maybe so, I was basically guessing about which way most readers would take it, and I tried to indicate that with the words "I think". Anyway, that's the point: it's ambiguous.
                – Jay
                17 hours ago














              • 1




                I really don't think most English speakers would interpret it like this—possibly most of the ones who have taken a course which deals in logic might.
                – Peter Shor
                19 hours ago












              • @PeterShor Maybe so, I was basically guessing about which way most readers would take it, and I tried to indicate that with the words "I think". Anyway, that's the point: it's ambiguous.
                – Jay
                17 hours ago








              1




              1




              I really don't think most English speakers would interpret it like this—possibly most of the ones who have taken a course which deals in logic might.
              – Peter Shor
              19 hours ago






              I really don't think most English speakers would interpret it like this—possibly most of the ones who have taken a course which deals in logic might.
              – Peter Shor
              19 hours ago














              @PeterShor Maybe so, I was basically guessing about which way most readers would take it, and I tried to indicate that with the words "I think". Anyway, that's the point: it's ambiguous.
              – Jay
              17 hours ago




              @PeterShor Maybe so, I was basically guessing about which way most readers would take it, and I tried to indicate that with the words "I think". Anyway, that's the point: it's ambiguous.
              – Jay
              17 hours ago











              1














              Consider the following dialog where two people describe an incident:



              "There was panic. Every boy ran for cover."



              "Every boy didn't run."



              It might be more "formally correct" if the second speaker had said "Not every boy ran," but the sentence he actually used emphasised the difference between the two speakers' descriptions - the second speaker is emphasising the difference in behaviour between running and not running, not the the number of boys who didn't run.



              On the other hand, if you consider the sentence as a logical proposition and ignore the context in which it was spoken or written, "Every boy didn't run" is logically identical to "No boy ran".






              share|improve this answer


























                1














                Consider the following dialog where two people describe an incident:



                "There was panic. Every boy ran for cover."



                "Every boy didn't run."



                It might be more "formally correct" if the second speaker had said "Not every boy ran," but the sentence he actually used emphasised the difference between the two speakers' descriptions - the second speaker is emphasising the difference in behaviour between running and not running, not the the number of boys who didn't run.



                On the other hand, if you consider the sentence as a logical proposition and ignore the context in which it was spoken or written, "Every boy didn't run" is logically identical to "No boy ran".






                share|improve this answer
























                  1












                  1








                  1






                  Consider the following dialog where two people describe an incident:



                  "There was panic. Every boy ran for cover."



                  "Every boy didn't run."



                  It might be more "formally correct" if the second speaker had said "Not every boy ran," but the sentence he actually used emphasised the difference between the two speakers' descriptions - the second speaker is emphasising the difference in behaviour between running and not running, not the the number of boys who didn't run.



                  On the other hand, if you consider the sentence as a logical proposition and ignore the context in which it was spoken or written, "Every boy didn't run" is logically identical to "No boy ran".






                  share|improve this answer












                  Consider the following dialog where two people describe an incident:



                  "There was panic. Every boy ran for cover."



                  "Every boy didn't run."



                  It might be more "formally correct" if the second speaker had said "Not every boy ran," but the sentence he actually used emphasised the difference between the two speakers' descriptions - the second speaker is emphasising the difference in behaviour between running and not running, not the the number of boys who didn't run.



                  On the other hand, if you consider the sentence as a logical proposition and ignore the context in which it was spoken or written, "Every boy didn't run" is logically identical to "No boy ran".







                  share|improve this answer












                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer










                  answered 12 hours ago









                  alephzero

                  3,40611016




                  3,40611016























                      1















                      “Every boy didn’t run”




                      is just not how you say anything. It's not grammatical. So it actually doesn't mean anything at all.



                      But an English speaker wants to squeeze some meaning out of it. What is called ambiguity is really the different ways one imagines the speaker intended but fouled up.



                      English (or human language) isn't formal logic, so the words don't apply necessarily in a strict order. So forcing one meaning on the phrase would be translated back into words as




                      Not every boy ran (there are some boys who did not run but some probably did, otherwise you would say 'no boy ran'),




                      or




                      No boy ran (For every boy, it is not the case that the boy ran)




                      as though 'every boy' is like a logical universal quantifier over all boys and the predicate says 'the boy did not run'.



                      It is problematic to say the sentence is ambiguous because it is not a pattern interpretable directly in English. So you have to guess what is meant, and in those collection of words, there are pretty much only two directions to go.






                      share|improve this answer





















                      • While it is easy to agree that 'every boy didn't run' is a formulation that it would inadvisable to use, is it really ungrammatical? Which rule of grammar is violated by it?
                        – jsw29
                        11 hours ago
















                      1















                      “Every boy didn’t run”




                      is just not how you say anything. It's not grammatical. So it actually doesn't mean anything at all.



                      But an English speaker wants to squeeze some meaning out of it. What is called ambiguity is really the different ways one imagines the speaker intended but fouled up.



                      English (or human language) isn't formal logic, so the words don't apply necessarily in a strict order. So forcing one meaning on the phrase would be translated back into words as




                      Not every boy ran (there are some boys who did not run but some probably did, otherwise you would say 'no boy ran'),




                      or




                      No boy ran (For every boy, it is not the case that the boy ran)




                      as though 'every boy' is like a logical universal quantifier over all boys and the predicate says 'the boy did not run'.



                      It is problematic to say the sentence is ambiguous because it is not a pattern interpretable directly in English. So you have to guess what is meant, and in those collection of words, there are pretty much only two directions to go.






                      share|improve this answer





















                      • While it is easy to agree that 'every boy didn't run' is a formulation that it would inadvisable to use, is it really ungrammatical? Which rule of grammar is violated by it?
                        – jsw29
                        11 hours ago














                      1












                      1








                      1







                      “Every boy didn’t run”




                      is just not how you say anything. It's not grammatical. So it actually doesn't mean anything at all.



                      But an English speaker wants to squeeze some meaning out of it. What is called ambiguity is really the different ways one imagines the speaker intended but fouled up.



                      English (or human language) isn't formal logic, so the words don't apply necessarily in a strict order. So forcing one meaning on the phrase would be translated back into words as




                      Not every boy ran (there are some boys who did not run but some probably did, otherwise you would say 'no boy ran'),




                      or




                      No boy ran (For every boy, it is not the case that the boy ran)




                      as though 'every boy' is like a logical universal quantifier over all boys and the predicate says 'the boy did not run'.



                      It is problematic to say the sentence is ambiguous because it is not a pattern interpretable directly in English. So you have to guess what is meant, and in those collection of words, there are pretty much only two directions to go.






                      share|improve this answer













                      “Every boy didn’t run”




                      is just not how you say anything. It's not grammatical. So it actually doesn't mean anything at all.



                      But an English speaker wants to squeeze some meaning out of it. What is called ambiguity is really the different ways one imagines the speaker intended but fouled up.



                      English (or human language) isn't formal logic, so the words don't apply necessarily in a strict order. So forcing one meaning on the phrase would be translated back into words as




                      Not every boy ran (there are some boys who did not run but some probably did, otherwise you would say 'no boy ran'),




                      or




                      No boy ran (For every boy, it is not the case that the boy ran)




                      as though 'every boy' is like a logical universal quantifier over all boys and the predicate says 'the boy did not run'.



                      It is problematic to say the sentence is ambiguous because it is not a pattern interpretable directly in English. So you have to guess what is meant, and in those collection of words, there are pretty much only two directions to go.







                      share|improve this answer












                      share|improve this answer



                      share|improve this answer










                      answered 12 hours ago









                      Mitch

                      50.4k15101211




                      50.4k15101211












                      • While it is easy to agree that 'every boy didn't run' is a formulation that it would inadvisable to use, is it really ungrammatical? Which rule of grammar is violated by it?
                        – jsw29
                        11 hours ago


















                      • While it is easy to agree that 'every boy didn't run' is a formulation that it would inadvisable to use, is it really ungrammatical? Which rule of grammar is violated by it?
                        – jsw29
                        11 hours ago
















                      While it is easy to agree that 'every boy didn't run' is a formulation that it would inadvisable to use, is it really ungrammatical? Which rule of grammar is violated by it?
                      – jsw29
                      11 hours ago




                      While it is easy to agree that 'every boy didn't run' is a formulation that it would inadvisable to use, is it really ungrammatical? Which rule of grammar is violated by it?
                      – jsw29
                      11 hours ago










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